Answer And Rational Pharmacology For Nurses Nclex RN Exams

01 Answer D
Rational: Drug tolerance can develop in a client taking an antihypertensive, which is evident by rising blood pressure levels. The physician should be notified, who may then increase the medication dosage or add a diuretic to the medication regimen. The client is also at risk of developing fluid retention, which would  be manifested as dependent edema, intake greater than output, and an increase in weight. This would also warrant adding a diuretic to the course of therapy.

02.Answer C
Rational: Intravenous diazepam is given by IV push directly into a large vein (reduces the risk of thrombophlebitis), at a rate no greater than 1 mg per minute. It should not be mixed with other
medications or solutions and can be diluted only with normal saline.

03.Answer A
Rational: Side effects of chlorpromazine can include hypotension, dizziness and fainting especially with parenteral use, rowsiness, blurred vision, dry mouth, lethargy, constipation or diarrhea,nasal congestion, peripheral edema, and urinary retention. Options B, C, and D are not side effects of chlorpromazine.

04.Answer C
Rational: Adverse reactions or toxic effects of tobramycin sulfate include nephrotoxicity as evidenced by an increased BUN and serum creatinine; irreversible ototoxicity as evidenced by tinnitus,
dizziness, ringing or roaring in the ears, and reduced hearing; and neurotoxicity as evidenced by headaches, dizziness, lethargy, tremors, and visual disturbances. A normal WBC is 4500 to 11,000
cells/mm3. The normal sedimentation rate is 0 to 30 mm/hour. The normal total bilirubin level is less than 1.5 mg/dL. The normal BUN is 5 to 20 mg/dL.

05.Answer D
Rational: Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant medication used in the prophylaxis of organ rejection in clients receiving allogenic liver transplants. Frequent side effects include headache,tremor, insomnia, paresthesia, diarrhea, nausea, constipation, vomiting, abdominal pain, and hypertension. Adverse reactions and toxic effects include nephrotoxicity and pleural effusion.Nephrotoxicity is characterized by an increasing serum creatinine level and a decrease in urine output.

06.Answer B
Rational: Mestinon is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. Muscle cramps and small muscle contractions are side effects and occur as a result of overstimulation of neuromuscular receptors. Options A,C, and D are not associated with this medication.

07.Answer B
Rational: Sotalol is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent. Side effects include bradycardia, palpitations, an irregular heartbeat, difficulty breathing, signs of congestive heart failure, and cold hands and feet. Gastrointestinal disturbances, anxiety and  nervousness, and unusual tiredness and weakness can also occur. Options A, C, and D are not side effects of this medication.

8.Answer D
Rational: Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant medication used in the prophylaxis of organ rejection. Adverse effects include nephrotoxicity, infection, hypertension, tremor, and hirsutism.
Additionally, neurotoxicity, gastrointestinal effects,hyperkalemia, and hyperglycemia can occur.Options A, B, and C are not associated with this medication.

09.Answer B
Rational: Mestinon is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. Muscle cramps and small muscle contractions are side effects and occur as a result of overstimulation of neuromuscular receptors. Options A,C, and D are not associated with this medication.

10.Answer D
Rational: Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant medication used in theprophylaxis of organ rejection in clients receiving allogenic liver transplants. Frequent side effects include headache,tremor, insomnia, paresthesia, diarrhea, nausea, constipation, vomiting, abdominal pain, and hypertension. Adverse reactions and toxic effects include nephrotoxicity and pleural effusion. Nephrotoxicity is characterized by an increasing serum creatinine level and a decrease in urine output.

11.Answer B
Rational: respiratory distress is common in a premature neonates and may be due to lung immaturity as a result of surfactant deficiency. The mainstay of treatment is the administration of exogenous surfactant, which is administered by the intratracheal route.Option A, C, and D are not routes of administration for this medication.

12.Answer D
Rational: the next action is to draw a sample for PT and INR level to determine the client's anticoagulation status and risk for bleeding. These results will provide information as to how to best treat this client if an antidote (vitamin K) or blood transfusion is needed. The aPTT monitors the effects of heparin therapy.

13.Answer C
Rational: oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions and is a common pharmacological method to induce labor. An adverse reaction associated with administration of this medication is hyperstimulation of uterine contractions. Therefore, oxytocin infusion must be stopped when any signs of uterine hyperstimulation are present. Drowsiness and fatigue may be caused by the labor experience. Early decelerations of the fetal heart rate are reassuring sign and do not indicate fetal distress.

14. A
Rational: levodopa relieves tremors and rigidity in clients with Parkinson's disease.

15.Answer C
Rational: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by multiple areas of  ulcers in the gastrointestinal tract. Omeprazole reduces gastric acid production and help relieve signs and symptoms experienced by the patient.

16.Answer  A, B, C, E
Rational: these are health instructions to be given during phenytoin therapy. Dilantin may cause skin rash, constipation, gingival hyperplasia (bleeding, tenderness, swelling of gums), bone marrow depression (pancytopenia), ataxia, nystagmus, double vision,drowsiness. Dental flossing should be avoided because bleeding mayoccur due to gum hyperplasia and blood dyscrasia.

17.Answer  A, B, E
Rational: these are possible side effects of Lisinopril, an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor.

18.Answer C
Rational: twitching indicates seizure. Therefore dilantin, an anticonvulsant is indicated.

19. Answer C
Rational: ciprofloxacin is a quinolone. It can safely be given if a client has allergy to sulfonamides and penicillin. Ampicillin and cloxacillin are penicillins. Co-trimoxazole is a sulfonamide. If a client has allergy to penicillin, more likely he also, has allergy to cephalosphorin.

20. Answer D
Rational: when a client will receive KCl/slow IV drip, urine output must be adequate to prevent renal damage. "No PEE, No K."

21.Answer A
Rational: alcohol is a CNS depressant. It enhances sedative effect of  benzodiazepines like Alprazolam. Therefore, the patient should avoid alcoholic beverages when he is taking benzodiazepines.

22.Answer C
Rational: if a client believes that he is being poisoned, allow him to see that the medications are opened in his presence.

23.Answer B
Rational: heparin is an anticoagulant. Avoid factors that may cause bleeding. Use soft bristled/soft sponge toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding. Ecotrin (ASA) may cause bleeding. Electric razor, and not safety razor is recommended to prevent trauma.

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Pharmacology for Nurses and Nclex RN Exams Practice Questions

01. A client has been taking an anti-hypertensive for approximately 2 months. A home care nurse monitoring  the effects of therapy determines that drug tolerance has developed if which of the
following are noted in the client?
a) decrease in weight
b) output greater than intake
c) decrease in blood pressure
d) gradual rise in blood pressure

02. A nurse is preparing to administering diazepam (Valium) by the
intravenous (IV) route to a client who is having a seizure. The nurse plans to:
a) administer the prescribed dose over at least 60 minutes
b) dilute the prescribed dose in 50 ml of 5% dextrose in water
c) administer the prescribed by IV push directly into the vein
d) mix the prescribed dose into the existing IV of 5% dextrose in normal saline

03. A client with schizophrenia tells the nurse, "I stopped taking my chlorpromazine (Thorazine) because of the way it made me feel." Which side effect is the nurse likely to note during further
assessment of the client's complaint?
a) drowsiness
b) nervousness
c) hard tremors
d) increased urination

04. A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a skin infection who is receiving tobramycin sulfate (Nebcin) intravenously every 8 hours. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the
client is experiencing an adverse reaction related to the medication?
a) a total bilirubin of 0.5 mg/dL
b) a sedimentation rate of 15 mm/hr
c) a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 30 mg/dL
d) a white blood cell count (WBC) of 6000 cells/mm3

05. A nurse is caring for a client who had an allogenic liver transplant and is receiving tacrolimus (Prograf) daily. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the client is experiencing an
adverse reaction to the medication?
a) photophobia
b) hypotension
c) profuse sweating
d) decrease in urine output

06. A client with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the hospital, and the nursing history reveals that the client is taking pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse assesses the client for side effects of the medication and asks the client about the presence of:
a) mouth ulcers
b) muscle cramps
c) feelings of depression
d) unexplained weight gain

07. A nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a diagnosis of chronic angina pectoris who is receiving sotalol (Betapace) 80 mg orally daily. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is experiencing a side effect of the medication?
a) dry mouth
b) palpitations
c) diaphoresis
d) difficulty swallowing

08. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving cyclosporine (Gengraf). Which of the following indicates to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse reaction to the medication?
a) acne
b) sweating
c) joint pain
d) hyperkalemia

09. A client with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the hospital, and the nursing history reveals that the client is taking pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse assesses the client for side effects of the medication and asks the client about the presence of:
a) mouth ulcers
b) muscle cramps
c) feelings of depression
d) unexplained weight gain

10. A nurse is caring for a client who had an allogenic liver transplant and is receiving tacrolimus (Prograf) daily. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse reaction to the medication?
a) photophobia
b) hypotension
c) profuse sweating
d) decrease in urine output

11. A nurse is preparing to administer beractant (survanta) to a premature infant who has respiratory distress syndrome. The nurse plans to administer the medication by which of the following
routes?
a) intradermal
b) intratracheal
c) subcutaneous
d) intramuscular

12. A client is brought to the emergency room stating that he has accidentally been taking two times his prescribed dose of warfarin (Coumadin) for the past week. After noting that the client has no
evidence of obvious bleeding, the nurse plans to do which of the following next?
a) prepares to administer the antidote
b) draws a sample for type crossmatch and transfuse the client
c) draws a sample for an activated partial thromboplastin (aPTT)
d) draws a sample for prothrombin (PT) and international normalized ration (INR) level

13. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to induce labor. The nurse discontinuous the oxytocin infusion if which of the following is noted on assessment of the client?
a) fatigue
b) drowsiness
c) uterine hyperstimulation
d) early decelerations of the fetal heart rate.

14. Which of the following indicates effectiveness of levodopa in a
client with Parkinson's disease?
a) relief of tremors and rigidity
b) improved emotional state
c) improve of memory
d) return of sensation

15. Which of the following drugs more likely will be prescribed for a client with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?
a) tapazole
b) propylthiouracil
c) omeprazole
d) hydrochlorothiazide

16. The nurse is caring for a 10-year old client newly diagnosed with tonic-clonic seizure disorder. What instructions do you give the mother about phenytoin?
a) monitor the child for skin rash
b) maintain adequate amounts of fluids
c) the child will be frequently having blood works done
d) maintain good oral hygiene, brushing and flossing
e) report to the physician any problems with walking, coordination, slurred speech, and nausea

17. The client is prescribed with Lisinopril (Zestril) for  treatment of hypertension. She asks you about the possible side effects of the medication. Which of the following are possible side
effects of the drug? Select all that apply
a) dizziness
b) headache
c) constipation
d) hyperglycemia
e) hypotension
f) impotence

18. Which of the following assessment indicates the need for Dilantin (phenytoin) administration after dialysis?
a) headache, nausea, vomiting
b) hypertension, headache, restlessness
c) nausea, vomiting, restlessness
d) dizziness, headache, restlessness

19. The client has history of allergy to sulfonamides and penicillin. Which of the following drugs may safely be given to the client?
a) ampicillin
b) cloxacillin
c) ciprofloxacin
d) co-trimoxazole

20. What assessment parameter will the nurse check prior to giving potassium supplement per slow IV infusion drip?
a) blood pressure
b) complete blood count
c) liver enzymes
d) urine output

21. When a patient is taking an antianxiety drug, such as Alprazolam (Xanax), the nurse should instruct the patient to:
a) avoid alcoholic beverages
b) increase potassium intake
c) discontinue use of drugs like tylenol
d) check for signs of edema

22. When the nurse begins to give the patient a prescribed medication, the patient says, "You are poisoning me with the pills you are giving me." Which of these responses by the nurse is most
appropriate?
a) tell me why you think I am doing that to you
b) this isn't the first dose I've given you
c) I'll get a fresh package of pills so you can see me open the sealed package
d) are the other nurses giving you these pills?

23. The client is on heparin therapy. Which of the following health teaching is essential?
a) use a safety razor to shave
b) use a soft sponge toothbrush
c) take ecotrin for pain
d) use compression support stockings

 Answer and Rational

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Medication and I.V. Administration Nclex RN Answer & Rational

01.Answer: c
Rationale: The timing of insulin’s effects varies according to the type. Referring to the chart, the nurse would note that the onset of action for the intermediate insulin is 2 to 4 hours. Because the administration time was 0800, the effects should begin 2 hours after administration, at 1000.
02.Answer: a
Rationale: The assessment findings of pallor,swelling, skin that’s cool to the touch at the I.V. insertion site, and a normal white blood cell count all indicate infiltration. The infusion should be discontinued and restarted in a different site. Phlebitis would be evidenced by redness at the cannula tip and along the vein. Infection would be evidenced by an elevated white blood cell count.
03.Answer: b, c, d, e, f
Rationale: A nurse must always implement safe nursing practice when administering medications. Following the rights of medication administration helps protect the client from medication errors. Safe procedure includes confirming the right client, dose, medication, time, and route. Confirming the room number doesn’t guarantee that the right client will receive the correct medication
04.Answer: a, c, d
Rationale: Reducing dietary sodium intake will help increase the effectiveness of diuretic medication and may allow smaller doses to be ordered. Diuretics are commonly prescribed to control fluid accumulation in the body; therefore, the presence of edema may indicate the need for the physician to adjust the therapy.
Compliance is very important with diuretics. In order to effectively monitor therapy, the nurse should encourage the client to take the medication exactly as prescribed.Salt substitutes aren’t recommended because they contain potassium instead of sodium and may cause serious cardiovascular effects. Diuretics cause an increased urine output, which may interfere with the client’s sleep if taken at bedtime.
05.Answer: a, b, c
Rationale: Metoprolol masks the common signs of hypoglycemia;therefore, glucose levels should be monitored closely in diabetic clients. When used to treat an MI, metoprolol is contraindicated in clients with heart rates less than 45 beats/minute and any degree of heart block, so the nurse should monitor the client for
bradycardia and heart block. Metoprolol masks common signs and symptoms of shock, such as decreased blood pressure, so blood pressure should also be monitored closely. The nurse should give the drug undiluted by direct injection. Although metoprolol shouldn’t be mixed with other drugs, studies have shown that it’s compatible when mixed with morphine sulfate or when administered with alteplase infusion at a Y-site connection.
06.Answer: b, e, f
Rationale: Redness, warmth, pain, and a hard, cordlike vein at the I.V. insertion site suggest that the client
has phlebitis. The nurse should discontinue the I.V. infusion and insert a new I.V. catheter proximal to or above the discontinued site or in the other arm. Applying warm soaks to the site reduces inflammation. The nurse should document the assessment of the I.V. site,the actions taken, and client’s response to the situation.Slowing the infusion rate won’t reduce the phlebitis. Restarting the infusion at a site distal to the
phlebitis may contribute to the inflammation. Skin sloughing isn’t a symptom of phlebitis; it’s associated with extravasation of certain toxic medications.
07.Answer: 8
Rationale: The nurse should calculate the infusion rate using the following formula:
Dose on hand/Quantity on hand = Dose desired/X
25,000 units/250 ml = 800 units/hour X
25,000 units x X = 250 ml x 800 units/hour
25,000 x X = 200,000 ml/hour
X =8 ml/hour
08.Answer: 50
Rationale: The nurse should use the following equation to calculate the drip rate:
Total quantity/Administration time x gtt/min = X
100 ml/30 min x 15 gtt/min = X
    1500 gtt
X = 30 min
X = 50 gtt/minute
09.Answer: c, d, f
Rationale: Administer an I.V. bolus by slow (50 mg/minute) I.V. push; too rapid an injection may cause hypotension and circulatory collapse. Continuous monitoring of ECG, blood pressure, and respiratory status is essential when administering phenytoin I.V.Early toxicity may cause drowsiness, nausea, vomiting,nystagmus, ataxia, dysarthria, tremor, and slurred speech. Later effects may include hypotension, arrhythmias,respiratory depression, and coma. Death may result from respiratory and circulatory depression.Phenytoin shouldn’t be administered by I.V. push in veins on the back of the hand; larger veins are needed to prevent discoloration associated with purple glove syndrome. Mix I.V. doses in normal saline solution and use the solution within 30 minutes; doses mixed in dextrose 5% in water will precipitate. Use of an inline filter is recommended.
10.Answer: a, d, f
Rationale: The nurse should tell the client to avoid salt substitutes because they may contain potassium, which can cause light-headedness and syncope. Facial swelling or difficulty breathing should be reported immediately because they may be signs of angioedema, which would require discontinuation of the drug. The client should also be advised to change position slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension. The nurse should tell the client to report light-headedness, especially during the first few days of therapy, so dosage adjustments can be made. The client should also report signs of infection,such as sore throat and fever, because the drug may decrease the white blood cell (WBC) count. Because this effect is generally seen within 3 months, the WBC count and differential should be monitored periodically.
11.Answer d
Rational: Cough and shortness of breath are significant symptoms because they may indicate decreasing pulmonary function secondary to drug toxicity. Decrease in appetite, difficulty in thinking clearly, and spasms of the diaphragm may occur as a result of chemotherapy; however,they are not indicative of pulmonary toxicity.
12.Answer  a
Rational: Signs of infiltration include slowing of the infusion and swelling, pain, hardness, pallor, and coolness of the skin at the site.If these signs occur, the I.V. line should be discontinued and restarted at another infusion site. The new anatomic site, time, and type of cannula used should be documented. The nurse may apply a warm soak to the site, but only after the I.V. line is discontinued.Parenteral administration of fluids should not be stopped intermittently. Stopping the flow does not treat the problem, nor does it address the client's needs for fluid replacement. Infiltrated I.V. sites should not be irrigated; doing so will only cause more swelling and pain.
13.Answer b
Rational: TPN is hypertonic, high-calorie, high-protein, intravenous (IV) fluid that should be provided to clients without functional gastrointestinal tract motility, to better meet their metabolic needs and to support optimal nutrition and healing. TPN is ordered once daily, based on the client's current electrolyte and fluid balance, and must be handled with strict aseptic technique (because of its high glucose content, it is a perfect medium for bacterial growth). Also, because of the high tonicity, TPN must be administered through a central venous access, not a peripheral IV line. There is no specific need to auscultate for bowel sounds to determine whether TPN can safely be administered.
14.Answer d
Rational: Isoniazid competes for the available vitamin B6 in the body and leaves the client at risk for developing neuropathies related to vitamin deficiency. Supplemental vitamin B6 is routinely prescribed to address this issue. Avoiding sun exposure is a preventive measure to lower the risk of skin cancer. Following a low-cholesterol diet lowers the individual's risk of developing atherosclerotic plaque. Rest is important in maintaining homeostasis but has no real impact on neuropathies.
15.Answer d
Rational: When giving an I.M. injection, the nurse inserts the needle into the muscle at a 90-degree angle, using a quick, dartlike motion. A 15-degree angle is appropriate when dministering an intradermal injection. A 30-degree angle isn't used for any type of injection. The nurse may use a 45- or 90 degree angle when giving a subcutaneous injection.

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Medication and I.V. Administration Nclex RN Practice Questions

 Medication and I.V. Administration Nclex RN Practice Questions, Pharmacology
01. A client receives a short-acting insulin and an intermediateacting insulin before breakfast at 0800. Using the chart below, when should the nurse expect the intermediate insulin to start to take effect?
a. 1500
b. 1300
c. 1000
d. 0900

02. A client has an I.V. line in place for 3 days and begins to complain of discomfort at the insertion site.Based on the client’s progress notes below, what condition has most likely occurred?
a. Infiltration
b. Phlebitis
c. Infection
d. Infection and infiltration

03. When administering medication, the nurse ensures client safety by following the rights of medication administration. Identity the “rights of medication administration.” Select all that apply.
a. Right room
b. Right client
c. Right dose
d. Right medication
e. Right time
f. Right route


04. A client is to be started on a new diuretic medication.Which of the following should be included in the teaching plan? Select all that apply.
a. Advise the client to reduce his dietary sodium intake.
b. Encourage the use of salt substitutes.
c. Tell the client to alert the physician about any visible edema.
d. Instruct the client to take the medication as directed.
e. Suggest taking the medication just before bedtime to establish a routine

05. After suffering an acute myocardial infarction (MI), a client with a history of type 1 diabetes is prescribed metoprolol (Lopressor) I.V. Which nursing interventions are associated with I.V. administration of
metoprolol? Select all that apply.
a. Monitor glucose levels closely.
b. Monitor for heart block and bradycardia.
c. Monitor blood pressure closely.
d. Mix the drug in 50 ml of dextrose 5% in water and infuse over 30 minutes.
e. Be aware that the drug isn’t compatible with morphine.


06. A client with an I.V. line in place complains of pain at the insertion site. Assessment of the site reveals a vein that’s red, warm, and hard. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.
a. Slow the infusion rate while notifying the prescriber.
b. Discontinue the infusion at the affected site.
c. Restart the infusion distal to the discontinued I.V. site.
d. Assess the client for skin sloughing.
e. Apply warm soaks to the I.V. site.
f. Document the assessment, nursing actions taken, and the client’s response.

07. A physician prescribes I.V. heparin 25,000 units in 250 ml of normal saline solution to infuse at 600 units/hour for a client who suffered an acute myocardial infarction. After 6 hours of heparin therapy, the client’s partial thromboplastin time is subtherapeutic. The physician orders the infusion to be increased to 800 units/hour. The nurse should set the infusion pump to deliver how many milliliters per hour? Record your answer using a whole number.
_________________________________ milliliters/hour

 08. After undergoing small-bowel resection, a client is prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl) 500 mg I.V. The mixed I.V. solution contains 100 ml. The nurse is to administer the drug over 30 minutes. The drop factor of the available I.V. tubing is 15 gtt/ml. What is the drip rate in drops per minute? Record your answer using a whole number.
_________________________________ drops/minute

09. After sustaining a closed head injury, a client is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg I.V. every 8 hours for seizure prophylaxis. Which nursing interventions are necessary when administering phenytoin?Select all that apply.
a. Administer phenytoin through any peripheral I.V. site.
b. Mix I.V. doses in solutions containing dextrose 5% in water.
c. Administer an I.V. bolus no faster than 50 mg/ minute.
d. Monitor electrocardiogram (ECG), blood pressure,and respiratory status continuously when
administering phenytoin I.V.
e. Don’t use an inline filter when administering the drug.
f. Keep in mind that early toxicity may cause drowsiness, nausea, vomiting, nystagmus, ataxia,
dysarthria, tremor, and slurred speech.

10. A nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client who was prescribed enalapril maleate (Vasotec) for treatment of hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan? Select all that apply.
a. Instruct the client to avoid salt substitutes.
b. Tell the client that light-headedness is a common adverse effect that doesn’t need to be reported.
c. Inform the client that he may have a sore throat for the first few days of therapy.
d. Advise the client to report facial swelling or difficulty breathing immediately.
e. Tell the client that blood tests will be necessary every 3 weeks for 2 months and periodically
after that.
f. Advise the client not to change position suddenly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.

11.A 56-year-old client is receiving chemotherapy that has the potential to cause pulmonary toxicity. Which of the following symptoms indicates a toxic response to the chemotherapy?
a.Decrease in appetite.
b.Drowsiness.
c.Spasms of the diaphragm.

d.Cough and shortness of breath


12.The client is receiving an I.V. infusion of 5% dextrose in normal saline running at 125 ml/hour. When hanging a new bag of fluid, the nurse notes swelling and hardness at the infusion site. The nurse
should first:
a.Discontinue the infusion.
b.Apply a warm soak to the site.
c.Stop the flow of solution temporarily.
d.Irrigate the needle with normal saline.

13.Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is prescribed for a client who has recently had a significant small and large bowel resection and is currently not taking anything by mouth. The nurse should:
a.Administer TPN through a nasogastric or gastrostomy tube.
b.Handle TPN using strict aseptic technique.
c.Auscultate for bowel sounds prior to administering TPN.
d.Designate a peripheral intravenous (IV) site for TPN administration.


14.To prevent development of peripheral neuropathies associated with isoniazid administration, the nurse should teach the client to:
a.Avoid excessive sun exposure.
b.Follow a low-cholesterol diet.
c.Obtain extra rest.
d.Supplement the diet with pyridoxine (vitamin B6).

15.When giving an I.M. injection, the nurse should insert the needle into the muscle at an angle of:
a.15 degrees.
b.30 degrees.
c.45 degrees.
d.90 degrees

Answer & Rational

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